Egypt for example is credited with experiencing a revolution at least partly owing to a large, young population. That meant increased liberalization and democracy (jury’s still out on that, but let’s say it’s a step in the right direction for now) and increased violence went along with a young population. Maybe an older population would have meant reduced violence and limited liberalization and democracy? And if so, why would those trends be an exception to the rule, instead of being the rule?

Seems pretty arbitrary to me.